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Being an old fashioned kind of guy I really need a lot of outside input here. I believe that in Babylon we still have hiring preferences for women. I presume that means that if a woman has equal qualifications as a man or even has slightly less qualifications than a man for a particular position, and the company/gov entity does not have a large enough quota of women hired in similar types of positions, then the woman would be hired over the equally or more qualified man.
Now to a simple guy like me, who is generally driven by logic, it seems that what we are in effect saying is that men are superior child nurturers to women because each time a woman takes the place of an equally or more qualified "bread winning" family head (at least eventually for most), the entire male group is indexed back a notch by the less qualified, perhaps misplaced female, making it more difficult or impossible for exactly one more man to provide the means of support for his family.
I suppose some would beat the tired old drum of "women on average are paid less in the same positions than their male counterparts". Well, I should hope so! This is about seniority and "time served". The exposure of women/mothers to the workplace is "hit and miss" and on average is only a fraction of their lifetime, compared to the exposure of their male counterparts, who are in the workforce all of their lives. Women and mothers enter and exit the workforce arbitrarily and frequently, or not at all. Anyone who thinks that women's salaries should average that of men has got to have a screw loose!
How do we have preferences for women when they compose the single greatest majority of all groups in Babylon today anyway?!